Honest Aryan The Indo-European language group is obviously something that exists independantly of any concept of racial descent, as does any language group. The question we are addressing is how well the two separate things - speaking an Indo-European language and having proto-Indo European ancestors - go together statistically. Gun free in D.C. and NYC977.html Gun free in D.C. Jan 4, 2006 by Cam Edwards ( bio archive contact ) Washington D.C. City Councilman Marion Barry�s become the latest victim of violent crime. Barry was in his Southeast... There is no general case. Linguistic changes vary from having virtually no racial impact (eg. francophone countries in sub-saharan Africa) to almost complete replacement (eg. English as opposed to aboriginal languages in Australia). Nobody argues that the Hungarians and Turks are full blooded asiatic mongoloids, yet those are the languages they speak. Hungarian has more in common with Japanese than it does with English. The reason nobody argues it is that it's obviously daft, Hungarians are caucasians. Similarly nobody argues that the Spanish are mostly descendants of the Romans, despite their speaking a Latin language - because we have written historical accounts to go on. The Indo-European expansion was someway between the two extremes but looking at R1a1 frequencies I can say with some confidence that the proto-Indo European ancestry of people in the British Isles is minute. This also accords with the continuity of other genetic markers and skull forms since before Indo-European languages arrived in the British Isles. The only dental study I know of on the issue says the exact opposite. Though I don't put much store in it myself. The genetic evidence points to an influx in England from both Anglo-Saxons and Vikings that amounts to them contributing about 30% of present day ancestry. If we buttume that Cavalli Sforza's PC3 corresponds to Gimbutas' Kurgan origin of the Indo-European language group then in fact it *did* introduce a significant amount of genetic variability. It was at least a partially demic population movement. Again we can see this from looking at haplogroups, even finding significant amounts of east European haplogroups in *India*. There was a sizable population shift but people in the British Isles were at the tail end of it, which is common sense, them being relatively far from the Ukrainian Russian steppe. The average Pakistani has more proto-Indo European ancestry than the average Englishman. No. Only the minority of European ancestry was present within Europe during the last ice age. The majority of the ancestry of Europe comes from the expansion of agriculture from the Middle East, what physical anthropologist Carleton Coon described as the "greater Mediterranean race" (ie. Nordics and Mediterraneans proper) "Modern dolichocephalic whites or browns are very similar in head and face measurements and form. The Nordic race in the strict sense is merely a pigment phase of the Mediterranean" - Carleton Coon, The Races of Europe. While the paleolithic ancestry of people in the British Isles is substantial it is still a minority, even this far from the Fertile Crescent. Ditto Scandinavia. HOW Could NY reelect BloombergI don't particularly care for Bloomberg either, but he is a saint compared to his vicious tyrant of a predecessor: Though sworn...
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